I would like to start a discussion about why some of us report problems with the flaccid penis also on the rest of the body. In fact, some mature over time an overall flaccidity of buttocks, thighs, calves, forearms and arms. My feeling is that the less responsive the receptors, the more you will have a deviation in hormone production towards estrogen, cortisol and inactive metabolites. The damage seems to be irreversible through supplements and good dietary practices and lifestyle (sports). Increasing or stimulating androgens leads to paradoxical reactions such as irritation, depression, increased underlying pain that persists, fasciculations. I have performed numerous examinations, two EMGs with nerve conduction tests, MRI with negative skull and medulla contrast, negative total body CT scan, countless negative blood tests. I know at 47 years old I have testosterone at 290 ngdl and ACTH at 76 so high, while LH is in the range even if a little below the average normal prolactin. My thesis is that it is because of the interrupted receptors the functioning of the synthesis of cholesterol upstream with the body discarding raw material to build hormones as if it knew that they are not usable and this self-depletion increases to compensate for the estrogens that increase but there is no way to understand if our bodies will be able to accept and metabolize androgens correctly. In my opinion no and the condition is getting worse in the last year I have lost muscles and my body is covered with thick and oily/gummy skin constant pain and extreme weakness. I’ve been taking finasteride for 23 years but I only notice improvements by doing everything that keeps the T down. I thought I had ALS or Kennedy syndrome but we don’t have similar cases in the family and honestly I don’t want to think about it. What do you think of this bad situation? I believe that receptors are destined to die and worsen their density over time for this reason they tend to overexpress themselves a phenomenon that does not lengthen their life but reduces it a little like traveling with a car doing 1000 miles a day an account to travel them at 180 an account at 50. This also explains why old people have less muscle mass and pain simply because the receptors are reduced and are not replicable/replaceable. The overexpression mechanism is a form of defense that when it is no longer sufficient to maintain muscle function in good condition exhausts the life of the receptor first with the consequence that dying it will not be replaced by other cells more responsive but less and less able to bind to the T. If it wasn’t like that at 80, doing hormone therapy and bringing the T to 800 should give the same effects as at 30 years old but it’s not like that. So the finasteride I don’t know through what mechanisms produces a kind of stress and rapid aging that no longer allows the body to properly use androgens from there the sequence of persistent symptoms. Every increase in T from strong rejection, the exercise produces unspeakable traumas. Please tell me yours?? Thanks to those who want to intervene. Regards
All I can say is my 86 year old dad who was active in sports up until last month or so can finally relate to what I’ve been going through. And even at his age, his sudden loss of capacity coincided with some sketchy-ass treatment his doctor had him on to “correct” a blood issue even though he had no symptoms and full strength.
We spoke a couple weeks ago and I could hear the sadness and pain in his voice as he revealed his new limitations. Of course he believes it’s age catching up with him and anyone who doesn’t know him would say the same thing. I just wish he’d told his doctor to fuck off with his ‘your numbers need to be this so inject this crap’ bullshit.
Sorry, I strayed off topic but original point was that I agree it’s rapid aging and as irreversible as actual aging, mentally disturbed billionaire clowns notwithstanding.