Human minimal androgen insensitivity with normal dihydrotestosterone-binding capacity in cultured genital skin fibroblasts: evidence for an androgen-selective qualitative abnormality of the receptor.
I’m confused as to the meaning and relevance of the article here Mew. I understand that they have a mutated DHT receptor thus making them have the common gyno male symptoms etc, but doesn’t go on to say that it’s linked to the X linked chromosome. Are you possibly alluding to the fact that finasteride could do the same sort of thing by just damaging the DHT receptors in the body? sorry not trying to discount the article just trying to better understand.
I haven’t gone through it in detail yet, but will… at that point I’d be better able to give some thoughts, just thought it may be of interest.