Hi, I would like to open a discussion about something I wrote in other topic.
“I know, the effect on dht of finas is almost the same (sligthly variation) from 0,05 mg dose to 5 mg. But for me there was a dramatic change when I moved from 1 to 5 mg. Also, I read the studies made for approval of finas 1mg for hair loss, and the effect on hair loss was completely different from a low dose (i do not remenber exactly the minimal dose used on these studies) to 1 mg, which does not make sense if hair loss is just dependant on dht reduction and it is almost the same from 0,05 in advance. Also 1mg does not affect theorically the prostate size and 5mg does. So, I think there is something else going on that is affected and dose dependat, not just skin or blood dht reduction.”
How is possible the regulator approved a dose (1mg) when the effect on hair loss was not explained for differecens on dht reduction (same from 0,05 to 5 mg) but it was dose dependant? The theory about getting balding was not just explained on DHT reduction theory, there was something else affected by finas that should explain differences on hair loss dose dependant, and not knowed. So the pill should not be never approved, because the mechanism is (somehow) unexplained.
Thougths?