So i asked my friend,who knows how epigenetic stuff works regarding this AR overexpression fact.
How is that happening?
He hypothesised that due to weak AR signaling,the body tries to compensate with adding more receptors.But that doesn’t work since the signal is dysfunctional on epigenetic lvl.Like at start u have 2 bad employees (due to poor signaling) and than u add 20 more(AR overexpression) to counter that,but still the job is not done…
What do u think of this hypothesis?
That’s an interesting explanation of AR overexpression. 
Sounds about right.
Also, it is more comparable to the loss of a negative feedback loop.
Could it be the same process than when one male get older?
If I am not wrong the older mens have increased number of receptors…surely due to they loss of effect.
In that case…i do not thnik that reducing the number of receptors is the key.
I do believe in this theory.
they hormones fall,not receptors
they have less testosterone,lh,fsh etc…
more estrogen so prostate grows etc…
we have great hormones,fucked up receptors,possibly methylated genes
thats the difference
Yeah but there is no difference regarding the consecuences, right?
At the end less androgens are making their effect…and we and old mens have incresed number of AR.
By the way, if we have weak AR signaling because during finasteride we increased the number of AR, and after finasteride we had a lot of DHT and testosterone together with high density of AR…in that situation we felt honry, and then crashed --> Weak AR signaling occurs suddently??
Then, maybe instead of trying to increase DHT or Testoterone…why no try to reduce their levels, trying to increase the AR signaling, and then cut them??
That is why some people improves or get cured from finasteride, after accutane PFS.
Regards.