(pardon me for posting the same question in more than one thread.)
I have a scientific question.
Does “up-regulated or down-regulated genes” mean directly “epigenetic-modifications(Methylation, histone-modification etc)” ? Altered genes expression and epigenetic-modification are completely the same thing?
According to the researches, finasteride brings out thousands of alterations of gene expressions (upregulated or downregulated) in brain and body. So, does it mean that finasteride caused thousands of epigenetic-modifications?
on the other hand, we have the theory that what causes pfs is some epigenetic-modifications which make AR-function distorted and useless. I understand it is the cause of pfs. I don’t know how many epigenetic-modifications contribute to AR-dysfunction. But, it must be not so many.
Then, do the researches reveal that besides epigenetical AR-dysfunction we have “other additional” thousands of epigenetical dysfunction? Is it truth? I feel something strange… If that so, we have not only one problem(AR-dysfunction) but also thousands of problems…
Anyone, could you teach me?