An amateurs theory

Hi guys,

I’m an engineer/mathematician, so everything I say here about biology should be taken with a grain of salt.
Having said that I was thinking, basic logic.

I was looking at the side effects of low and hight DHT.
(Some) Sides for low DHT:
-Lower sex drive
-Mood swings (quickly annoyed)
-Feeling weak and don’t wanna do sports

(Some) Sides for high DHT:
-Increased body and facial hair
-Sleep apnea
-Enlarged prostate = more frequent peeing= night peeing

Now the funny thing is… how can we (or at least I) have side effects from both…
How can I have low and high DHT side effects, I also got blood test a couple times and everything seemed ‘‘good’’.
But with ‘‘good’’ DHT how can I still have both side effects??

So here is my theory:

At first your hormones are good, they have a perfect ratio T, DHT, enzymes and receptors.
For this theory I’ll put some numbers to it to explain it better.
Let’s say your testosterone is 5 (random number), it is converted to DHT (also 5) and you have 5 receptors. Perfectly balanced.

So when you take finasteride you inhibit DHT, so let’s say: T=5 DHT=2 and because you only have 2 DHT only 2 receptors pick it up.

When you stop the finasteride your DHT goes back to normal (5). But somehow the receptor stays at 2.

Why do I think that? Because of the symptoms, your body has the 5 DHT again but your body has already compensated for the low DHT. Which means you go back to 5 okay cool but we can only convert 2.

So some parts of the body that are used to the 5 only get 2 and some parts of the body that are used to the 2 now get the 5.
So you got low and high DHT.

Another example to support my theory: When people (including me) start raising DHT via supplements we get worse. We get worse because the body already has ‘‘too much’’ DHT or at least more then the receptors can handle.

Now what happened to the receptors? I don’t know. There is a theory which says the receptors have become hypersensitive… maybe that is true, but wouldn’t the estrogen be also high if that would be the case?

If anyone has any comments on why my theory is totally wrong I’m all ears.

This is essentially what Awor said a long time ago, I think if you go through his posts you’ll see him talk about it in a lot of detail (if you are interested).

Having an overexpressed androgen receptor can be a problem. I believe, androgen receptor sensitivity is proportional to expression, up to a certain point. After this point, any subsequent increase expression is associated with a less androgenic phenotype (this is something that has been documented in a few studies).

Having an AR that doesn’t function optimally can cause issues, but it’s not necessary that the impediment is uniform in distribution or intensity across the body. Some tissues might not be affected at all, while others are affected to various degrees. This is a possible explanation for why some side effects get better when you supplement with androgenic/antiandrogenic compounds, why some people only have sexual side effects whilst others have sexual and mental, etc.


Thanks @borax I’ll have a look through some of Awor’s old posts.

Ah might be a better idea to look through the paper the admins put out recently, I think it’s much more comprehensive and is up to date.


Link for the newer paper:

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