It seems to me that three distinct mechanisms are at work here:
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Those that shut down the HPTA…presumably this has to occur through some kind of “overstimulation” of the negative feedback mechanisms of the hypothalamus. Using finasteride causes increased T, decreased DHT. Because DHT is an estrogen antagonist, low DHT results in increased estroiol. With increases in both T and E, negative feedback on the hypothalamus produces an effect similar in mechanism to Anabolic Steroid Induced Hypogonadism, the result being hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. This effect could be amplified if the individual consumed CYP3A4-inhibiting factors while on finasteride. Symptoms would manifest themselves over time, and so explain cases that arise later and persist.
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Partial androgen insensitivity syndrome…meaning that, congenitally, some rare individuals have either a) androgen receptors that are less responsive to androgen, or b) lack of function in one of their two AR genes. In either case, we can imagine a scenario in which prior to finasteride use the individual was making just enough androgen to support penile tissues. Then, following finasteride administration, the individual experienced a decline in androgen activity such that AR was no longer activated to the extent necessary to maintain penile tissues, thus causing ED. The individual continued with finasteride nevertheless, assuming reversal of symptoms would be possible at any time, unknowingly causing permanent/long-term damage to penile tissues.
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Allopregnenolone deficiency. Symptoms (anxiety, depression), I would think, would only persist while on finasteride…The only possible long-term effect I can imagine would be neurodegeneration (i.e. excitotoxicity) in those areas of the brain that are vulnerable to the degenerative effects of glutamate. If this were in fact the case, progesterone cream could be considered curative (in addition to HCG, perhaps).
Theory #2 accounts for those individuals who experience immediate sexual dysfunction, as well as those who experience immediate ED followed by prolonged ED that doesn’t respond to TRT. Theory #1 accounts for what I would say is the majority of those experiencing long-term side effects: low gonadotropins in a setting of low T that manifests itself symptomatically as unresolvable low libido, low energy, anxiety (low T-induced), etc.
There are certainly shades of gray here, and possible confusion as symptoms of the above mechanisms would surely overlap, but this framework does seem to have universal explanatory power…as far as I can tell. But, naturally, I’m guaranteed to be missing something.
Any thoughts?