Okay, so I don’t understand the pharmacology of propecia at all, but I bring this to the table:
I’m currently in the middle of a steroid cycle (IE: I’ve been taking 250-500 mg of testosterone per week). However, three weeks ago I began taking propecia in hopes of ameliorating the hairloss wrought by the increase in DHT due to steroid use.
Almost as soon as I began taking 1.25 mg of propecia per day, might erectile function virtually flatlined. Now, as some of you may know, testosterone by its very nature normally causes a heightened libido and erectile function.
What does this tell us on a theoretical level? How could I be fucked by finasteride, with all the typical symptoms (erectile dysfunction, weakened libido, anxiety, depression) while being exposed to high levels of exogenous testosterone.
Thoughts?
Needless to say, I quit propecia after two weeks of these symptoms. For the past week since stopping propecia, my symptoms have become worse. However, I am hopeful and determined… prepared to take everything as it comes at me.