I have been suffering from pfs for about 4 years now. My brother also took propecia for his hair loss before me. I’ve never actually confessed to him that I’ve been suffering like this as I’ve never felt comfortable talking about it and am quite private on the subject, especially with family for some reason. However, when I did once have a short discussion with him about the syndrome in general, he said he experienced a few side effects, but they went away as normal. This was ages ago we spoke of this, and haven’t spoken much of propecia since then. I really doubt he made that up and is secretly suffering like I am… I know him well enough. He didn’t fall victim to the drug. So, my question is… we both took the drug, so is it strange in any way that he is not suffering as well? Obviously I’m glad he isn’t, just thought I’d raise this.
My father did use propecia and had not side effects and no PFS. The father of braziliandude did use it aswell and didn´t have issues.
In my opinion genetical disposition is not the cause of what has happened, but this does not exclude epigenetic change.
Yes!!! IMO this has nothing to do with gene expression or epigenic changes! What was your brothers hairline like in comparison to yours. Did you take propecia more for preventive measures?e
Hi fina truth. My brothers hairline always was and still is a lot worse than mine. He doesn’t have so much hair, whereas my hairloss has halted and has hardly resumed after 4 years off. It’s not as thick as it used to be, but its still pretty much normal. Yet I’m still experiencing these damn side effects.
I took the drug as I noticed some thinning and slight hair loss. Looking back, it wasn’t that bad actually, and of course regret. His was in a much worse state than mine. In fact it was actually my brother who recommended propecia, I really wish he hadn’t as I might not have taken it so soon. I must add that he is actually a few years older than me, and his hair loss began at a younger age than mine.
how are your
muscle loss
fatigue
ED
sleep issue
and the same for your brother?
ahhhhhh my theory is becoming more true everyday! I predicted your brother had worse hair than you, and that you took it as a semi-preventative measures
One former propeciahelp member who I still talk to weekly said his father and brother also took finasteride, but only he developed PFS.
moonman1, find out the status of the difference in hairline within the family if you can. If the one affected by PFS took it more as a preventative.
based on what are you saying it has nothing to do with gene expression?
Spstriken, its hard to tell if any muscle loss, perhaps some I guess. I’ve had some fatigue problems even before propecia, but probably due to other lifestyle factors… but it has got slightly worse after the drug actually. Ed is an issue now I’d say. As for sleep, its certainly not as deep and refreshing as it was before the drug.
As for my brother, he says that sometimes he can have poor sleep, but if he does its down to general lifestyle and says he can fix it easily. so his sleep is generally fine. He says he doesn’t have much fatigue, and again, if he does its down to other normal factors. I’ve not asked him about the other stuff… as I’ve said, he is not aware I have pfs and we don’t discuss such private matters. I’m going by what he said a long while ago, that his sides, which were few, had cleared up normally. I can also tell by his hair, that its much different to mine. My hair loss just doesn’t resume for some reason.
I don’t mean to add confusion to the research, but there is something odd here. But I’m sure there is research taking place in different areas and hopefully the answers will come in time.
Bryce54, yes this has nothing to do with gene expression, but rather checmical and physiological differences. Its time we all start imploring logic here instead of looking for some great white whale that does not exist. If this is an alteration in gene expression…when exactly did this happen? For some upon the first pill? for me 9 years later or roughly 3,285 pills? Oh, and coincidentaly if I were to buy the argument that this is gene expression, when did the gene expression happen to the sufferers who only had side effects after the last pill…did it coincidentaly happen for us on the very last pill? And finally if this was some androgen insensitivity or altered gene expression this would be the first known effect of finasteride, versus WHAT WE ALREADY KNOW this drug does in studies. So, the accumulative toxicity argument is out the window. What does this lean to or tell us, it tells us that there is some IMBALANCE that happens at some time, and probably some part very very delicate (brain) That somehow the first pill taker is equally affected as the 4,000 pill taker (getting off the drug) or the 12,000 pill taker (getting off the drug) That certainly doesnt point to gene alteration.
So lets emplore even more logic here…are we to assume that there may be different root causes for different individuals? In other words those that might have just brain fog and those that have sexual sides and brain fog or just sexual sides and no brain fog actually have different ROOT causes? No, I dont buy that. It is more logical that the root cause is the EXACT same in all three circumstances. Now the severity, subjective complaints, and areas affected (symptoms) may vary. Thats LOGIC.
Finally, taking the above deductive reasoning that (a) there is no gene alteration or toxicity possible, and (b) there is one root cause the last remaining piece of the argument is what is the most LOGICAL area that would cause ALL the symptoms we experience? The answer is the brain or neurological.
Another 5-AR Inhibitor has been known to alter gene expression.
Please stop using the “never before in history” argument. You sound like a 9/11 Truther. Altered Gene expression from Dutasteride was documented six years ago.
"Dutasteride (Avodart), a drug used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia, may also prevent the development of prostate cancer by inducing genetic changes at the cellular level…
…
Gene expression profiling was performed, finding 32 unique genes that were upregulated by treatment with dutasteride and 98 genes that were down regulated. "
medpagetoday.com/MeetingCove … state/5119
also interesting
“She said that IGEBP3, which appears to be upregulated by dutasteride, promotes apoptosis and inhibits cell proliferation”.
Second Amendment…I said FINASTERIDE has never, not dutasteride. But thank you for furthering my argument in logic that either we are to assume they do the exact same thing and alter gene expression (which has never been proven with finasteride) or that the root cause is something different, but shared in similarity. Even stonger evidence pointing in another direction than altered gene expression.
Actually, it has been. Awor was kind enough to share yet-to-be-published information from the studies, only to have it thrown back in his face by googleaholics.
You can pretend you have it right and the major research institutions who are spending their limited budget on the problem have it all wrong. To each his own.
do you know where theres a list of all these genes that were either upregulated or downregulated?
So what your saying is that these findings involve more than the blocking of the creation of allopreganalone? More than the involvement of neurosteroids or a neurological root?
just let the foundation do their work. unless someone here is able to fund research all on their own and chose not to donate it to the foundation, nothing being said can be proven. it is just a complete waste of everyones time. i am not saying this to be snarky. but seriously, let the foundation do their work, and support them as best you can. THAT is logic!