If receptors were silenced by being “overloaded” with DHT upon cessation of Propecia, would it not stand to reason that they might be un-silenced by being deprived of DHT again for an extended period of time and then only very slowly being reintroduced to it in such a manner as to be able to handle it rather than being overloaded?
What if we went on TRT for 3 months or something (so as to be sure to shut down our natural production), then stopped administering our TRT and just waited for our natural production to slowly kick in again. Would that not potentially re-sensitize our androgen receptors?
Just curious. Where am I wrong? Why wouldn’t that un-do what Propecia did to us?