We all know that Merck lied when they put propecia on the market, claiming that any sexual side effects would disappear on cessation [from this we can assume that anything they say can be taken with a pinch of salt as they only say what they can get away with, merrily manipulating the corrupt system only for profit].
Anyway, my question is, if Merck were “honest*” from the start [*as much as they can be], and stated that sexual function may not recover, would propecia have been approved for cosmetic use, even if they claimed that it only effected a small percentage? And if by these conditions it wasn’t fit for approval, how would just changing the possible side effects leaflet now make it a legitimate safe product for cosmetic use if retrospectively it wouldn’t have passed. Is it just a case of “get the drug on the market by whatever means and once it’s on the market we can just amend the side effects list once they start complaining, as long as the money keeps coming in as once it’s on the market its difficult to remove”???
How exactly does this fucked up system Merck has such a handle on work and how can we fix it? And can we at all use the “the FDA wouldn’t have approved it if they have known?” as any kind of defence?